The explanations that I'm familiar with are:
1) The Russians are blackmailing him (they have incriminating tapes, documents etc)
2) He is financially indebted and/or inescapably tied financially to Russian interests
But both these explanations were around in 2016 so I think the only thing that has changed is that their plausibility has increased as the evidence has become harder and not purely circumstantial.
The other complicating factor is that I don't think the Russians expected him to win (as opposed to making Hilary look like a weak and compromised POTUS) and he's a bit too wild or senile for them to control as much as they'd like; but OTOH they can't pull the trigger or they would get Pence.
1) The Russians are blackmailing him (they have incriminating tapes, documents etc)
2) He is financially indebted and/or inescapably tied financially to Russian interests
But both these explanations were around in 2016 so I think the only thing that has changed is that their plausibility has increased as the evidence has become harder and not purely circumstantial.
The other complicating factor is that I don't think the Russians expected him to win (as opposed to making Hilary look like a weak and compromised POTUS) and he's a bit too wild or senile for them to control as much as they'd like; but OTOH they can't pull the trigger or they would get Pence.
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