I'm assuming nobody on here is remotely sympathetic to the banks which have quite rightly just been made subject to colossal fines in the US for yet another bit of criminal behaviour, this time FX rate fixing.
I don't suppose anyone is naïve enough to feel any great schadenfreude either, as the individual perpetrators, and indeed their bosses, are doubtless getting nothing like their just punishment on an individual personal level.
But the amounts are so huge that, to me at least, it raises some questions of national allocation. Or, to put it bluntly, why is the US fisc getting all that dosh from the fines while we in the UK, and other relevant fiscs such as Germany, Japan etc. aren't?
That's a particularly sensitive point, of course, in relation to the largely UK state-owned RBS. The fine on RBS is a chunky financial transfer from the British public to the US public.
Does anyone on here know the answer to any of the following:
- Do the US prosecutors and judges just make these numbers up as they go along, or is there some publicly transparent set of criteria by reference to which they can be assessed?
- Is the criminal behaviour in question specifically tied to US-based markets (a question that arises not least because as I understand it London is the biggest FX market globally by volume, bigger than NY)?
- Or is it believed that most of the clients ripped off by the criminal behaviour were, by rip-off volume, US based?
- Are the authorities in Frankfurt, or Tokyo, or London, likely to raise proportionate fines?
- Is it at all an issue in international diplomacy that the US fisc seems to get these massive streams of fine income, way in excess (even taking proportion into account) of those arising to authorities in other countries, from global banks?
I don't suppose anyone is naïve enough to feel any great schadenfreude either, as the individual perpetrators, and indeed their bosses, are doubtless getting nothing like their just punishment on an individual personal level.
But the amounts are so huge that, to me at least, it raises some questions of national allocation. Or, to put it bluntly, why is the US fisc getting all that dosh from the fines while we in the UK, and other relevant fiscs such as Germany, Japan etc. aren't?
That's a particularly sensitive point, of course, in relation to the largely UK state-owned RBS. The fine on RBS is a chunky financial transfer from the British public to the US public.
Does anyone on here know the answer to any of the following:
- Do the US prosecutors and judges just make these numbers up as they go along, or is there some publicly transparent set of criteria by reference to which they can be assessed?
- Is the criminal behaviour in question specifically tied to US-based markets (a question that arises not least because as I understand it London is the biggest FX market globally by volume, bigger than NY)?
- Or is it believed that most of the clients ripped off by the criminal behaviour were, by rip-off volume, US based?
- Are the authorities in Frankfurt, or Tokyo, or London, likely to raise proportionate fines?
- Is it at all an issue in international diplomacy that the US fisc seems to get these massive streams of fine income, way in excess (even taking proportion into account) of those arising to authorities in other countries, from global banks?
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