Can anyone shed light on this phenomenon? If one is looking for a particular book on Amazon, happy to get a second-hand copy, it often happens that multiple sellers are offering it for the price of 1p, plus a reasonably hefty p&p charge of, say (as in the case of the book I'm after, which is Keegan on WW2 as you ask) £2.80.
I'm interested in how that makes sense for the sellers. They're often established operations with thousands upon thousands of overwhelmingly positive customer gradings, so there's no catch I believe. But 1p will obviously not cover the cost of their time and effort (Edit: even assuming they have acquired the book for zero themselves so have no acquisition cost to cover). I'm assuming that the point is that they can arrange despatch for well under the Amazon fixed delivery charge of (in this case) £2.80. But then why do Amazon set an artificially high p&p charge to disguise seller income as delivery costs? Weird!
I'm interested in how that makes sense for the sellers. They're often established operations with thousands upon thousands of overwhelmingly positive customer gradings, so there's no catch I believe. But 1p will obviously not cover the cost of their time and effort (Edit: even assuming they have acquired the book for zero themselves so have no acquisition cost to cover). I'm assuming that the point is that they can arrange despatch for well under the Amazon fixed delivery charge of (in this case) £2.80. But then why do Amazon set an artificially high p&p charge to disguise seller income as delivery costs? Weird!
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